If net exports had contributed as strongly to US GDP growth over the past three years as they have contributed to Chinese GDP growth, the US would not have a current account deficit – and the US wouldn’t need to rely on oil funds and China’s central bank for as much financing as it does now.
There really isn’t much doubt about this. My rough calculations suggest that net exports contributed 2.6% to China’s GDP growth in 2005, 2.1% in 2006 and are on track to contribute another 2.4% in 2007. No other major economy — at least no other commodity-importing economy — has received a similar boost from net exports. Not Europe. Not the US. Not Japan. I would bet that no major economy had received as large a boost from net exports over a three year period in the post-war period.
China’s trade surplus rose from $32b in 2004 (census basis) to $260b over the last 12 months of data (up from $180b or so in 2006) even as the average price of oil rose from $33 to $70 (average annual price— it oil averages $100 over 2008 that would be a huge change, even from 2007) and other commodity prices rose as well.

The fact that China is set to run a $350b or so current account surplus at a time when the oil exporters are running a comparable surplus goes a long way toward explaining why large imbalances have persisted in the global economy. Normally commodity importers surpluses do down when commodity prices go up.
The Economist isn’t convinced. This week’s Economics focus column – which draws on work by UBS’s Jon Anderson and builds on previous Economics focus columns arguing that the RMB isn’t really undervalued despite a huge depreciation against the euro and pound, record reserve growth and the record recent contribution of net exports to China’s growth — argues that China’s economy doesn’t really depend on exports all that much. The Economist:
"Headline figures show that China’s exports surged from 20% of GDP in 2001 to almost 40% in 2007, which seems to suggest not only that exports are the main driver of growth, but also that China’s economy would be hit much harder by an American downturn than it was during the previous recession in 2001. If exports are measured correctly, however, they account for a surprisingly modest share of China’s economic growth."
It is no doubt true — as the Economist argues – that looking simply at the export to GDP ratio overstates exports impact on China’s economy. China has to import (components) in order to export (finished goods). Many other countries do as well, including the US. Boeing aircraft, for example, now have more imported components than the past.
But I am not sure that Jon Anderson’s story – namely that China has shifted from industries like toys with a high Chinese value-added to industries like electronics with a low Chinese value-added, so the value-added in China’s export sector hasn’t increased along with China’s exports – really works. Electronics assembly shifted to China some time ago. The story of the past few years has been the shift in electronics component production to China. A fair amount of data now suggests that the reason why Chinese imports from Asia haven’t grown along with Chinese exports is that China is producing more components at home.
The IMF’s work on this topic (see Box 2 of the April 2007 regional outlook, this Murtuza Syed/ Li Cui paper, and this Li Cui article) might even make for an interesting Economics Focus column. Li Cui’s conclusion — that China’s exposure to the global economy is rising — is quite different than Anderson’s conclusion.
I never have quite been able to quite figure out how Anderson reconciles his data showing that the domestic value added in China’s export sector is only around 10% of China’s GDP with the data showing that China’s trade surplus is about 9% of China’s GDP. China’s export sector presumably generates enough net revenue to cover the bill for the commodities China imports and still generate a large surplus that fuels reserve growth.
Anderson’s work suggests the big surge in Chinese value-added came in the mid-1990s and that Chinese value-added has only increased modestly since then. The trade data — and specifically the soaring trade surplus after 2004 and the end of the close correlation between Chinese exports and Chinese imports — suggests a more recent surge in Chinese value-added.
(sorry about the swiggly line — I was in a hurry, and I didn’t smooth the quarterly GDP data to match it with the monthly trade data)
I suspect Anderson would argue that it is impossible to reconcile the domestic value-added data with the external trade data as the data come from fundamentally different sources and, well, Chinese data never quite adds up. But the gap does seem to suggest – at least to me – that something is off.
Anderson might argue that the trade data is off, as the trade surplus includes large disguised capital inflows. Perhaps. But it is hard to believe that illegal capital inflows account for the full increase in the trade surplus. Not when China has been trying hard to crack down on inflows.
An undervalued exchange rate doesn’t just influence the economy by promoting exports, it also can encourage import substitution.
And an import substitution story certainly fits in well with the data, as imports fell as a share of Chinese GDP from late 2004 on. China arguably has been so effective at substituting domestic production for a range of imports that it basically no longer imports anything other than commodities (and planes), so almost all the value-added in the export sector ends up contributing to China’s surplus. I suspect that this is a large part of Anderson’s argument – it certainly fits the data. It just didn’t though figure in the Economist’s column.
At the same time, I would bet that the fall in the pace of import growth recently also indicates a real increase in share of value-added in China’s export sector, and specifically an increase in the value-added of China’s electronics industry. The IMF argues that "China is becoming less reliant on other Asian economies for inputs" as a result of "rapid investment in the early 2000s" in intermediate sectors. And the growth of Chinese machinery parts exports clearly represents an increase in Chinese value-added.
To be sure, net exports “only” account for between 2 and 3% of China’s recent growth. The Economist is right to argue that China would be growing quite fast even in the absence of any contribution from net exports to growth.
At the same, consumption is still falling relative to GDP, so it clearly hasn’t been the key driver of growth. Investment by contrast has been rising quite sharply relative to GDP. No doubt the majority of that investment has been “domestic” – though if investment in import-competing sectors is factored in, the share of investment in the “tradables” sector likely would be a bit higher than the folks at Dragonomics estimate. It took at least some investment to create the capacity to raises exports v GDP from a bit under 25% of China’s GDP to close to 40% of China’s GDP — the rise in China’s exports relative to GDP over the last six years exceeds total US exports as a share of US GDP. It also took some investment to bring imports share of GDP down from 35% (in 2004) to around 30% in 2007 — the recent rise in imports to GDP reflects the recent commodity price spike.
That said the biggest risk to Chinese growth isn’t a collapse in export demand. It is a collapse in domestic investment following China’s current boom. Negative real rates arguably are encouraging massive over-capacity. If investment to GDP fell back to a more normal level for high growth Asian economies, Chinese growth would slow significantly.
Nonetheless, the fact that net exports "only" account for 20 to 25% of China’s overall growth doesn’t change the fact that net exports have contributed more to China’s growth over the past few years than at any time in the past. See the Peterson Institute’s Nick Lardy.
China didn’t run a big trade surplus three years ago. It now does. That presumably is a rather important story, not one to minimize.
That brings up another issue – how best to report to report changes in the value of China’s currency. The Wall Street reported that China’s currency surged last week – and it did, against the dollar. But it actually fell against the euro last week. And even as it soared by 7% against the dollar in 2007, it fell by 3% or so against the most important currency of its largest trade partner (Europe).
In 2007, the RMB depreciated against the euro, the Indian rupee, the Thai baht, the Canadian dollar and the Brazilian real. It held its own against the yen and Malaysian ringit. It appreciated against the US dollar, the Saudi riyal, the pound and the Korean won. But it had depreciated significantly against the won and pound in the past – and it didn’t make up all that much.
That doesn’t sound like a strong currency to me.
To be fair, James Areddy’s story does a better job of most of reporting on the moves in the rmb/ euro, not just the rmb/ dollar – the headline didn’t do justice to the story. Areddy also does an excellent job of highlighting how China is increasingly leaning on the banks to buy dollars, and thus intervening more than ever in the fx market even as the pace of RMB appreciation picked up.
"The mechanics of China’s exchange-rate policy remain murky. Currency traders in Shanghai, where the yuan trades, say recent strength has masked how much more active the People’s Bank of China has become in managing the exchange rate.
Even as it has repeatedly published ever-higher daily "parity" rates for the yuan against the dollar, which establish the parameters for daily trading, it has set highly technical rules that introduce artificial market demand for U.S. dollars, such as requiring banks to set aside more of their deposits as reserves in the U.S. currency."
Don’t get me wrong. The fact that China didn’t follow the dollar down (at least not entirely) is an improvement over say 2003. Unlike some, I do think the RMB’s depreciation in 2003 had something to do with the emergence of China’s trade surplus, and the rapid rise in its surplus with Europe.
And the fact that inflation in China topped inflation in the US meant that the RMB appreciated even faster in real terms against the dollar than in nominal terms. If that is sustained for several years, it should have an impact.
But China’s currency will only surge (in real terms) if:
Chinese inflation increases to Qatari or Emirati levels, which will produce a surge in its real value
The RMB starts appreciating faster against the dollar than other major currencies
Or the dollar stabilizes and China continues to let its currency appreciate at the same rate as in 2007.
Update: The key claim in Jon Anderson’s paper is that the "actual contribution [of exports] to [China's] GDP is barely rising over time." Anderson also notes that industrial output as a share of GDP (measured on a value-added basis) of GDP hasn’t increased in line with China’s the increase in China’s export to GDP ratio, and that the big increase in exports share of industrial output (in the Chinese data) came in the early 1990s. That raises a puzzle — namely the huge increase in exports to GDP doesn’t seem to be reflected in the domestic data.
Anderson reconciles these two data series by in effect asserting that value-added in the export sector has to have fallen over time. More exports, falling value-added = same share of total value added in the industrial sector. Fair enough.
And he uses a lot of assumptions and ballpark math — with the key assumption that makes the ballpark math work being that China’s value added in electronics production is low and stable — to argue the Chinese export value-added is falling over time. He estimates that domestic content in electronics is far lower than in light manufacturing (toys), and, crucially, that domestic content in electronics has been roughly constant from 2004 on (see Anderson’s chart 7). I can hardly criticize Dr. Anderson for using ballpark and assumptions to make data series that otherwise seem inconsistent a bit more consistent, as I do the exact same thing to estimate official financing of the US.
However, the story that emerges from Anderson’s work — and it is in some sense the story required to make the stable share of industrial production to GDP consistent with the export data — is one where value-added in the export sector falls over time. That story seems inconsistent with the rise in the trade surplus — which suggests a rise in value added as the imports aren’t rising in line with exports. Anderson’s rebuttal is that the fall in imports is more or less all from a fall in import growth, and specifically "excess capacity creation in heavy industrial sectors." Think chemicals and steel.
The work of the IMF and World Bank by contrast tells a slightly different story, namely one where the domestic content of Chinese electronics imports is rising over time. That explains why Chinese exports are growing faster than Chinese imports, and why China’s trade deficit with Asia is no longer rising to offset the growth in its surplus with Europe and the US. This story isn’t inconsistent with the fall in "heavy" imports — though it suggests that the fall in heavy imports has been accompanied by a fall in light imports.
This story fits the external data (in my view) a bit better than Anderson’s story. But it has its problems — as it implies that either industrial output is rising as a share of GDP along with exports, or that exports account for a larger share of industrial output.
And if I had to bet, I would bet that exports share of industrial output is rising. Remember that consumption is falling as a share of GDP, so unless Chinese consumers are buying more goods and fewer services, domestic consumption of manufactured goods is falling relative to China’s GDP.
To me it is completely unacceptable to separate demand for property and infrastructure from export growth. It is estimated by Michael Pettis that around 1oo million people moved from rural to urban areas in the past 6 years, when exports were booming. This must have raised a hell of a demand for property and infrastructure.
If it is over, overall investments might fall very sharply.
“That said the biggest risk to Chinese growth isn’t a collapse in export demand. It is a collapse in domestic investment following China’s current boom. Negative real rates arguably are encouraging massive over-capacity. If investment to GDP fell back to a more normal level for high growth Asian economies, Chinese growth would slow significantly.”
Pretty strong assertions. Care to elaborate?
I wonder how you define “value added product”. As far as I know, agricultural machinery producers are happy about all their exports to China. German are also happy about their machinery exports to China. US has hundreds of high tech stuffs that China desperately wants. Talking about comparative advantage. If one party gives up its comparative advantage, it should not blame the other.
Investment to GDP is likely now above 50% of GDP. If it fell back to 40% of GDP (still a very high level) that would be quite contractionary.
Contrary to US popular perception, not everything produced in China is destined for Walmart store shelves. The Chinese government has done a superb job diversifying exports to other regions of the world especially Europe and the Middle East. Actually, medium technology Chinese manufactured products are more appropriate for developing nation consumer markets than high-tech products from the United States. Of course, China won’t completely decouple from a severe US Recession, but Western pundits predicting a China economic crash in 2008 will surely be disappointed. Maybe the Chinese economy will slow from a 11-12% annual growth rate to a 9-10% growth rate. The same Western pundits who predicted a China crash during the Asian Economic Crisis in the late 1990′s were flat wrong then, and will be proven totally wrong again in 2008! LOL
“It has not demonstrated any real commitment to allowing its fully-owned banks to operate commercially.”
Brad, the lack of regulatory legal oversight of the US banking system is a total joke around the world. That Citicorp could create off-the-books “special entities” to hide billions of dollars of losses at Enron reeks of systemic corruption. Then Vice Chairman Robert Rubin was deeply personally involved in the Enron corruption and fraud, but escaped any federal criminal investigation with his high level Clinton Administration political connections and a $2 billion Citicorp settlement with the SEC to drop federal criminal charges against its employees.
Now we have hundreds of billions of dollars of looted funds from the subprime derivative fiasco. Bonds rated AAA are today worth pennies on the dollar. Why isn’t Hank Paulson who marketed the AAA subprime toxic waste at Goldman Sachs under investigation? Wall Street owes the Bank of China $10 billion for the losses incurred on those AAA rated mortgage bonds.
I remember a few months ago I read an article written by a statistician worked in China Stat Bureau, he said that China does not use expenditure method to compute GDP. Then if you use investment, net export, consumption…to add them up to get GDP, it does not make statistical sense.
“Then if you use investment, net export, consumption…to add them up to get GDP, it does not make statistical sense. ”
Well, then Chinese Stat Bureau does not calculate GDP but something else.
Y=I+C+(X-M)
this is as solid as thermodynamics and double accounting.
There are two issues:
1) to what extent Chinese growth is internally driven
2) to what extent the Chinese currency is overvalued or undervalued
Those seem to me to be two separate questions. It’s pretty obvious that what is driving Chinese growth is not exports but capital investment. Also an extremely high Chinese savings and investment rate is seen as a bad thing, but I’m not sure while. I think the argument is that Japan had a investment driven economy that proved to be counterproductive in the 1990′s.
However the counterargument is that it will take decades for China to get to Japan’s level of development and for an economy at China’s current state of development, pouring lots and lots of concrete like Japan did circa 1960 seems to make sense.
Also, we may have different definitions of what it means to “operate commercially.” What “operating commercially” means to me is that the government central bank sets limits on the total rate of loans (either administratively or by open market transactions), but does not direct the banks to lend to individual sectors or worse yet, order to banks to make or not to make specific loans, and that banks make loans based on the ability to make a profit off the loan.
I’d argue very strongly that based on those criteria, that Chinese banks are indeed “operating commercially” as they are simply not getting government directives on who to lend to and who not to lend to. They are not even getting explicit instructions on how much to lend any more.
China accounts for land in a way that makes investment figures problematic.
One problem with these discussions is that I’ve often seen the statement that X% of investment is “too high” but I’ve never seen the basis which allows one to calculate what investment is too high or too low.
The argument against Chinese investment being too high is that Chinese investments make money, and that’s not surprising given the huge pool of labor.
The other pet peeve is there seems to be an assumption that there is some magic switch in Beijing that says “boost consumption” or “reduce investment.” There isn’t. Even if we did come up the belief that China is investing too much, then to reduce it requires that the government do something other than flip a switch, and whatever that something is will have side effects.
One hypothesis that I have heard is that around 2001-2002 there was a massive buildup in raw materials capacity that that capacity pushed down prices and caused imports to decrease below what they otherwise would have, and that is what caused China’s trade surplus.
Guest ,
There are some other equations as far as i know, for instance
GDP = R + I + P + SA + W
where R = rents
I = interests
P = profits
SA = statistical adjustments (corporate income taxes, dividends, undistributed corporate profits)
W = wages
I think that guy mentioned this equation as the current practice. I have to go back to check his article.
When I initially reviewed this report, what was most important for me to remember is that China’s dynamics require all of us to look at different measurements on a regular ongoing basis.
Jon and his team have put together a fantastic report that highlights just that, and for the majority of us in China we can see the changes occurring before our eyes.
Sure, a complete meltdown in the US would impact China, but I am skeptical that the impact would be as great as the US pundits would like to believe. China’s domestic economy is stronger now, the 2nd and 3rd tier domestic economy is growing faster than the economy as a whole, and through all of this many firms previously only exporting have turned the tap the other way.
Glad my post found its way onto RGE, glad it could stir up a little dialog, and I invite you all to All Roads to participate in more recent dialogs where we covered a number of other relevant topics (VAT, RMB, and regulations)
R
http://www.allroadsleadtochina.com
all roads — thank the economist.
Jin, you can put it in many other ways, but all most be true at the same time.
Brad, Myth is a apt word to describe china’s investment led growth
. The reason for low inflation in china so far has been steady increase in savings. Whatsoever inflation has happened is basically investment based inflation ie capital equipment, raw material inflation. Service sector, a minority has not experienced high inflation at all. Once the hair dresser, plumber, electrician etc start to ask higher wages, PBoC will definitely have big problems to deal with
It’s hard for me as an American to get too mad at the Chinese because they’re exhibiting too much of the virtues of thrift and hard work. I used to hear those were American virtues, in my childhood years ago. Not only that, they make all that high quality stuff that I like to buy.
I thought we Americans had the backbone to live within our means. If we went on a spending spree, blaming a bunch of non-military factories in China seems like it misses the mark.
And so the rational government-based solution for our addiction (if it’s abetted by the Chinese government’s heavy-handed intervention in trade) is to put up trade barriers. This may well happen when the Democrats control the government soon. We’ll have free financial trade but restricted trade in goods. Has anyone analyzed that sort of world economically?
Brad do you really mean as you say in this post:
1. “I never have quite been able to quite figure out how Anderson reconciles his data showing that the domestic value added in China’s export sector is only around 10% of China’s GDP with the data showing that China’s trade surplus is about 9% of China’s GDP. China’s export sector presumably generates enough net revenue to cover the bill for the commodities China imports and still generate a large surplus that fuels reserve growth.” (Then wouldn’t the trade surplus have to increase to allow reserve growth, not the domestic value added — which signals the release of value into the local economy rather than central bank reserves?)
2. An increase in Chinese inflation will cause in increase in the FX value of the RMB?
It seems to me that those statements are backwards.
artichoke –
on 2) I was alluding the appreciation, in real terms, that comes from a rise in inflation and a stable nominal price rate. in effect, china’s domestic cost structure increases faster than the cost structure of its competitors, making chinese production a bit less competitive. I should have been a bit clearer.
on 1) value added is the difference between the price of inputs and the price of output. if a company imports components and then sell all its production for exports, the gap between imports and exports is a decent proxy for value-added. and yes, this value added is initially kept in china. but then — and the mechanisms are complicated and debated, the central captures a lot of the value added in aggregate and recycles it back to the US by buying us debt (and now the CIC buys us broker dealers). but in broad terms, I am relying on a set of accounting identities – the current account surplus is the gap between domestic savings and investment, and between external income from exports and investment and external payments on debts and imports. the rise in the trade surplus suggest a rising cap between exported output and imported inputs, and thus a rise in domestic value added.
but you are right to note that this increase in domestic value added could be used to buy more imported consumption goods and the like, or to finance more imported capital goods. in china’;s case, tho, most of it seems to be saved, and the central bank basically borrows the savings (by issuing its own debt) and then lends it to the world.
Brad,
Thanks for the detailed response. On (1), the central bank doesn’t need to borrow savings, it can print them. But that isn’t sterilized. So constraining money supply can definitely make one type of nominal holdings crowd out another. What seemed simple now seems not so simple …
David
the central bank can print money, not savings.
printing money = unsterilized intervention (no bill issuance, just printing money)
borrowing savings = sterilized intervention.
china has done a mix of both, in part b/c money demand growth has been strong, but it has always been able to sterilize when needed.
bsetser wrote: “It has not demonstrated any real commitment to allowing its fully-owned banks to operate commercially.”
Brad: I would agree with you- the Fed has not demonstrated any real commitment to allowing its de-facto (if not de-jure) fully-owned banks (citi, BofA, JPM, Merrill, etc.) to operate commercially.
“the Fed is now doing stealth reductions in the effective Fed Funds rate as it is lending every day significant amounts of liquidity at rates well below the target Fed Funds rate of 4.25%”
-Nouriel Roubini’s blog, Dec 18
“…They are ready to beat the Chinese, the Indians and the Americans.”… “We made a decision to go global in terms of acquiring assets and developing strategy outside Russia”… Gazprom [is] also competing with international banks…” http://www.ft.com/cms/s/0/b542986a-bb2f-11dc-9fbc-0000779fd2ac.html
“…In the market for cereals, 2 firms – Cargill and ADM – control two-thirds of the international trade. Together with Dreyfus and Bunge, these firms also control the international trade in oilseeds. Cargill, Dreyfus and Tate & Lyle dominate the international sugar market… Monsanto alone accounts for 41% of the global market for maize seeds (GM or not) and 25% of that for soybean seeds. In 2004, Monsanto sold the seeds for 88% of the area cultivated with GM crops… What is called ‘world price’ is really the price of the most ‘competitive’ country or the main country that is selling its product on the world market. The US is the ‘price maker’ for grains…” http://www.roppa.info/IMG/pdf/J._Berthelot-Food_sovereignty_agricultural_prices_and_world_markets-ROPPA_November_06.pdf
http://www.cargill.com/about/organization/trade_struct_fin.htm
Corporate control of key agrofuel feedstocks http://www.grain.org/seedling/?id=478
how exactly does the preceding comment relate to the post/ thread?
‘I never have quite been able to quite figure out how Anderson reconciles his data showing that the domestic value added in China’s export sector is only around 10% of China’s GDP with the data showing that China’s trade surplus is about 9% of China’s GDP. China’s export sector presumably generates enough net revenue to cover the bill for the commodities China imports and still generate a large surplus that fuels reserve growth.’
I’m having difficulty understanding the math disconnect here. The reference to ‘net revenue’ is puzzling me among other things. Would appreciate any elaboration. Thanks.
Last month there was the news on Bloomberg, that Chinese retail sales increased by 18% y/y. Then how come the share of consumption is shrinking in the GDP? And how is it possible that retail sales, investment, net export all grow well above the 11-12% GDP growth? What is it then in GDP that grows well below 10%? Is it not possible that the real GDP growth was a lot higher than 11-12%? A few years ago there was a large upward revision of the preceding GDP numbers. Maybe we will see the same thing again.
[quote]Brad, the lack of regulatory legal oversight of the US banking system is a total joke around the world. [/quote]
Actually its not. The US financial regulatory system is considered the gold standard for financial regulatory systems in the world. Putting together a financial regulatory system is really, really tough. One problem is that if the government intervenes too much then people get the mistaken impression that the purpose of the government is to keep people from losing money in the financial markets, and that is something that the government can’t do.
[quote]Then Vice Chairman Robert Rubin was deeply personally involved in the Enron corruption and fraud, but escaped any federal criminal investigation with his high level Clinton Administration political connections and a $2 billion Citicorp settlement with the SEC to drop federal criminal charges against its employees.[/quote]
Part of the problem with Enron is that it took the SEC a very, very long time to figure out what Enron did that was criminal. The trouble with Enron is that every single off-book and suspicious transaction that Enron did was properly reported in its annual reports and securities filings, its just that very few people bothered to read any of this.
What makes it really hard is that victory has a thousand fathers but defeat is an orphan. If the financial regulators had done anything in 1998 that would have caused Enron stock to go down, people would have been screaming. Same with subprimes in 2005.
[quote]Why isn’t Hank Paulson who marketed the AAA subprime toxic waste at Goldman Sachs under investigation?[/quote]
What law do you think he broke?
Any buyer of subprime derivatives has to sign pages and pages of legal stuff saying ‘yes I know I could lose money with this and if I do its my own damn fault”. This may be a problem if the buyer doesn’t understand what they are signing, but pretty much everyone involved in the derivatives did. (The mortgages themselves are a somewhat different story, but even there the people that signed up for the mortgages weren’t quite as innocent as the press makes them out to be.)
I should point out that I think it is highly unlikely that Paulson or Rubin did anything that was illegal. Banks have large teams of lawyers that monitors people’s activities that prevent them from doing anything illegal as well as large teams of lobbyists to make sure that anything that they want to do isn’t made illegal.
One should point out that what is legal, what is ethical, what makes good business sense, and what is good social policy don’t necessarily coincide.
There’s nothing that DC has mentioned that seems to me to be anywhere close to illegal.
Calling up a government official and offering them large amounts of cash to make a decision is (and should be) illegal.
Calling up a government official and explaining to them why a ruling that benefits your firm is in the national interest is not illegal and it shouldn’t be. Making campaign contributions and inviting officials to company events so that that government official returns your calls is subject to a whole bunch of rules that the lawyers will give you advice on.
There are certainly public policy issues here, but I don’t think that criminal law is the best way of fixing them.
My net revenue i meant something like
Exports – imports of components tied to exports. the net of that is the trade surplus on the export side.
out of that trade surplus, China pays for its imports of commodities, its imports of capital goods for domestic use and its imports of consumer goods.
And it still has about 9% of GDP left over.
that suggests to me that the value added in the export sector is more than 10% of GDP.
AC — retail sales are I think retail cases of goods in urban areas. consumption growth is a broader concept. plus the numbers are in nominal not real terms. with exports up something like 25% y/y and investment up 20% y/y (I would need to check the actual numbers, please don’t quote me), retails sales could be up 18% and consumption could be up 15% (all in nominal terms) and consumption would still be shrinking as a share of the total.
I suspect that consumption maybe increased by say 10% in real terms, but the economy grew by 12% — ergo, consumption’s share of the economy shrank.
one thing is clear — China’s rising trade surplus indicates production is growing faster than demand, so china is on net drawing on demand from the rest of the world rather than contributing demand to the rest of the world. Martin Wolf gets this right. Looking at consumption growth w/o looking at production growth paints a misleading picture.
Twofish: “Part of the problem with Enron is that it took the SEC a very, very long time to figure out what Enron did that was criminal.”
Yeah those Enron guys were not completely stupid. Only partially so. They covered their tracks very well.
Twofish: “The trouble with Enron is that every single off-book and suspicious transaction that Enron did was properly reported in its annual reports and securities filings, its just that very few people bothered to read any of this.”
I wouldn’t go that far. Fastow, Lay Skilling etc did get convicted, didn’t they? And David Duncan was not using the shredder to destroy a few thousand letters to his mistress.
Dave Chinag wrote, “The same Western pundits who predicted a China crash during the Asian Economic Crisis in the late 1990′s were flat wrong then, and will be proven totally wrong again in 2008!”
The only country that did not undergo a recession along with the US in 2000-2001 was China, but it will not escape this time.
The reason: the 2000-2001 recession was a capital spending led recession, with US telecom and dotcoms having overcapacity, and US corporations going bankrupt (Enron, Worldcom, and many smaller ones). Credit to consumers kept flowing, and despite unemployment at almost 6%, the US consumer kept spending due to credit that was created by surplus money entering the US. Credit cards and home equity withdrawal were taking off.
China will not escape unscathed this time. The US consumer will slow down too.
What China needs, is a minimum wage and social safety net. They need to transform away from export dependence.
hasn’t the majority of china’s, (and greater china’s?) population, along with much of the RoW, has been in their own recession for quite some time?
“…the rich-poor gulf has continued to widen despite increased government spending on rural schools, health care and aid to farmers. The Xinhua report on Sun’s statement mentioned no new initiatives to narrow the income gap. Sun said income per person for the 900 million Chinese officially classed as rural residents rose 7% in 2007 to $550…” as compared with inflation… http://www.time.com/time/world/article/0,8599,1698449,00.html
“…The headline statistics… often mask widening inequalities and an underclass with little to lose by hurling stones and lighting flames when aspirations are frustrated. Or take Angola. The champions of recent Africa optimism point out that it, not China, is the world’s fastest growing economy – yet [like China?] its rapacious elite makes Congo’s look like mere pickpockets and its billionaires, like Nigeria’s, live amid unemployment and poverty so widespread there are no reliable statistics to describe it. For every cosmopolitan university graduate living in a comfortable suburb, there are dozens in slums and villages with no access to electricity, clean water or education…” http://www.ft.com/cms/s/0/ae66167a-bb2f-11dc-9fbc-0000779fd2ac.html
“…we can be our own worst enemy, and best friend, in business.” — Dr. Kenneth L. Lay, Chairman and CEO, ENRON Corporation http://www.leadershipnow.com/leadershop/0476-6.html
“…Ken Lay: “The only thing that differentiates Enron from our competitors is our people, our talent.”… They were there looking for people who had the talent to think outside the box… if everyone had to think outside the box, maybe it was the box that needed fixing… the problem was how the talent was focused…” http://www.memestreams.net/thread/bid451/
Somewhat off topic, but not much. I will probably never go to China to see the miracle itself. But using Google Earth, one can visit much of China in a different way. I have been zeroing in on the major cities, Harbin recently. The immensity of the country and the amazing level of development is very clear and astounding. I doubt many Americans have any idea of what a colossus is emerging in the world and one that will completely overshadow the US in the not too distant future.
I have some observations on the methodology used in Anderson’s paper. Much reflects my attempt to work through some Boolean logic, relating various pieces of the puzzle to various accounting identities and constraints. I’m not fully there yet, but thought I would share it. I’m not 100 per cent certain it’s right, and would appreciate your reaction, particularly if I’ve gone off track. It’s mostly a conceptual approach. Apart from that, I have no expertise on the more pragmatic aspects of value added or content issues as they relate to China’s exports. I apologize for the length of this post, but hope you will find it worthwhile.
The overarching issue seems to be China’s effective exposure to the global economy via its export sector. Anderson decomposes exports into domestic input content, foreign input content (i.e. import content), and export sector value added. He then uses export sector value added as an index of export exposure. I think this latter application is misleading.
Gross exports arguably overstate effective export exposure by including import content. To the degree that China can respond to slowing export growth by cutting back on imports, its overall GDP level will be relatively immunized. At the same time export sector value added understates effective export exposure. Value added excludes the value of domestic content in exports. To the degree that China responds to slowing export growth by cutting back on domestic inputs to its export sector, its overall GDP level will be exposed to that slowdown.
Therefore, Anderson’s juxtaposition of mountain climbing gross export value against flat-lining export value added is quite misleading, because it compares an exaggerated interpretation with an understated one.
On the other hand, between these two representations lies the more appropriate measure of gross exports less import content, or equivalently, export sector value added plus domestic content. This measure recognizes the sensitivity of GDP to changes in domestic content inputs and the relative GDP immunization offered by import content.
Thinking about this more, it seems to me that a country’s trade surplus (or deficit) can be decomposed into the trade surplus of its export sector and the trade deficit of its domestic sector. The trade surplus of the export sector would be defined as gross exports less imports used as content in exports. This is the measure I’ve suggested above is most representative of a country’s GDP exposure to exports. I think you refer to this same measure as “net revenue”.
The export sector trade surplus has a lower bound equal to the overall trade surplus level. This reflects a situation in which all imports are used as export content. It is the boundary point where effective GDP exposure to exports is minimized.
Similarly, the export sector trade surplus has an upper bound equal to the level of exports. This reflects a situation in which no imports are used as export content. It is the boundary point where effective GDP exposure to exports is maximized.
The critical point to be drawn from these boundary conditions is that China’s overall trade surplus is a lower bound for the size of its export sector surplus. This means that China’s trade surplus is a lower bound for its GDP exposure to exports. To the degree that China’s trade surplus has been growing, this means that China’s GDP exposure to exports has been increasing, which would support your view directionally more than Anderson’s.
(At this stage, I wonder if I’m making a point that is completely obvious and redundant, at least to you, or wrong.)
Returning to the export/domestic decomposition of the overall trade surplus, the trade deficit of the domestic sector would be defined as imports used as content in “non-exported” final output (there must be a better label than that).
All that said, it’s not clear to me that the decomposition of the export sector trade surplus into value added and domestic content components is conceptually critical in the analysis of effective export exposure. In fact, GDP is exposed to the contraction of either or both of value added and domestic content components as contributors to the contraction of the export sector trade surplus.
Several concluding points:
First, the greater the import input content of exports, the more that GDP should be “immunized” from a global slowdown. Anderson’s methodology seems to acknowledge the direct import content of exports. But I don’t see any recognition of upstream import content in those domestic components that are direct inputs for exports. This would seem to amount to additional immunization for GDP levels, directionally favouring his argument.
Second, Anderson observes that China’s trade surplus has improved because import growth has slowed. He goes on to say that this reduces exposure to the export sector because imports have been replaced by import competing domestic substitutes. But such a conclusion depends on an assumption that import substitution is not used as content for exports. If it is, then export exposure has actually increased. I think you allude to this in your comments.
Third, I think I’ve constructed a round numbers solution to the following puzzle:
“I never have quite been able to quite figure out how Anderson reconciles his data showing that the domestic value added in China’s export sector is only around 10% of China’s GDP with the data showing that China’s trade surplus is about 9% of China’s GDP. China’s export sector presumably generates enough net revenue to cover the bill for the commodities China imports and still generate a large surplus that fuels reserve growth.”
(I hope I’m assuming correctly here that 10 per cent refers to export sector value added and not domestic content.)
So in round numbers, assume exports at 40 per cent of GDP, imports at 30 per cent of GDP, the trade surplus at 10 per cent of GDP; and export sector value added at 10 per cent of GDP.
Let:
E = exports
M = imports
S = trade surplus
E (M) = the import content of exports
D (M) = the import content of non-exported final domestic output
E (D) = the domestic content of exports
EVA = export sector value added
Then:
E = M + S
= E (M) + D (M) + S
So:
40 = E (M) + D (M) + 10
E (M) + D (M) = 20
But also:
E = E (M) + E (D) + EVA
So:
40 = E (M) + E (D) + 10
E (M) + E (D) = 20
Thus, there are two equations to be satisfied, which is easy enough to do.
In this example, because S = EVA, it turns out that D (M) = E (D), and there are an infinite number of solutions to these equations. That won’t be the case when S is different from EVA.
anonynmous1 — your intuition makes sense to me, and it describes why I have trouble reconciling anderson’s conclusion with the trade data. As you note, the lower bound for value added in the export sector should be the trade surplus (call it 10% of GDP). And the upper bound is gross exports (40% of GDP). Everyone would agree that the 40% level is too high. If one third of all imports (1/3 of 30% or 10% of GDP) were inputs into the export sector, then China’s true export exposure would be 30% of GDP [EVA = S + (M - E(m))], if 2/3s of all imports are inputs into the export sector, then China’s exposure (based on the trade data) would be 20% of GDP. For China’s export exposure to be 10%, all imports would need to be inputs into the export sector.
I don’t remember Anderson explicitly differentiating between the value added in the export sector and the value added in the sectors creating components for the export sector. But the distinction still seems relevant to me. It certainly seems like the Chinese definition of the export sector — the one Anderson uses to argue that the ratio between the value added in key export sectors and the value added in all industry has been stable at around 20% recently — may not be counting value added in domestic sectors that generate components for the export sector (in effect, the export sector is defined too narrowly). Some such sectors may generate components for both the domestic and the export market — auto parts for example.
My sense is that the imported content of exports has gone down recently, which implies that — using a more trade based analysis — E(m) [an aside M (x) -- for imports used in exports seems more natural to me]/M is falling, which implies that value added in the export sector is rising. And given the rise in the trade surplus, i tend to think export value added is probably around 20% of GDP, if not higher — and, more crucially, that export value added has increase substantially since 2004. Anderson by contrast would argue that export value added hasn’t increased all that much recently — as the big rise in the share of the export sector to overall value added in industry in the data he looked at came in the 1990s.
Hope this helps.
Thanks Brad, for a different perspective on Anderson’s analysis…
I was suspicious that these analysts were trying to justify a rosy picture of their turf…
3 important points from your post are :
- Chinas growing external reliance
- Tnvestment to gdp is abt 40-50% of gdp
- The biggest risk to Chinese growth isn’t a collapse in export demand. It is a collapse in domestic investment following China’s current boom… If investment to GDP fell back to a more normal level for high growth Asian economies, Chinese growth would slow significantly…
With the US recession highly likely, the risk of a severe global recession is a sharp drop in chna;s domestic investment..
But is it likely that china;s domestic investment contracts?
what are the possible causes? and potential cures?
Would appreciate your views… Thanks for your time..
mrskeptical
bsetser – thanks.
There may be some lingering terminological confusion, at least in my mind. My impression was that Anderson defined export sector value added to exclude both import and domestic content. (He discusses at some length the difference in general between valued added and content of either type.)
Perhaps this is just semantics, but I get the impression you generally treat export sector value added as including domestic content. My one point on the relevance or not of the valued added/domestic content composition of the net export sector was in the context of what I thought was Anderson’s definition of value added.
Then there’s an additional derivative question, more conceptual rather than terminological, about the recognition or not of the secondary import content within the primary domestic content of exports. I agree that’s relevant.
Guest: The article was refering to Kenya not China. Inequality in China is mitigated by the land reforms of the 1950′s which insures that the 60% of the people who live in the countryside have a social safety in the form of land.